Language, It's Always Changing

10 November 2011

People often think of Latin as a highly regular, rules-based language. They rarely consider that the language was widely spoken as a native tongue for 1,500 years and in diverse regions with plenty of regional dialects—not to mention all the changes in the medieval period when people had ceased to learn it at the hearthside as small children. In his blog, Languagehat identifies a famous example of Latin shifting under the feet of one of its greatest writers.

The case in question is from Virgil’s Aeneid, Book II, line 49, in a reference to the wooden horse that caused the fall of Troy:

timeo Danaos et dona ferentis
(I fear the Greeks, even when bearing gifts.)

The problem is that according to the classical rules, ferentis, a plural present active participle modifying Danaos (Greeks), is genitive. It should be ferentes, which is the accusative form. And many modern versions of the epic change the the text to ferentes. Now Virgil was hardly an incompetent writer. He certainly knew his genitives from his accusatives. So what is going on?

Evan, one of Languagehat’s readers, nails it. Ferentis is an older accusative form, and Virgil wrote the Aeneid using an older, more conservative style. Checking with Allen and Greenough’s New Latin Grammar, I can confirm that Evan has it right. This is an example of change in Latin. Modern editors change the spelling to ferentes in the same way they give Shakespeare modern spelling. The same processes that are driving change in English today were driving change in Latin two thousand years ago.

Anonymous and Shakespeare Being Shakespeare

1 November 2011

With some trepidation, I’m going to wade into the “did Shakespeare write Shakespeare” kerfuffle. My trepidation is not a result of doubt on my part, but is rather that I don’t want to attract the crazies (and despite what Keir Cutler says, many of the anti-Stratford position are indeed certifiable) and that I’m not an expert on Shakespeare, having taken only one graduate-level course on the Bard. As a result, I’m mainly going to be pointing to a better scholar than I on the subject.

First, I haven’t seen Anonymous, nor am I likely to. My unwillingness to see it isn’t due to the subject, but rather that by all reports it is simply a terrible movie. I enjoyed Oliver Stone’s JFK, which has an equally ludicrous plot, and I found Shakespeare In Love to be delightful, even though it probably has as many historical inaccuracies and anachronisms as Anonymous. So I’m not going to comment further on the movie, per se.

Keir Cutler’s recent opinion-piece in the Montreal Gazette gives a nice summary of the anti-Stratfordian position and argument. Implicit within Cutler’s piece is the notion that Shakespeare was a singular genius (he even quotes Henry James referring to the “divine William") and that a mere glover’s son, the scion of low-birth, could not possibly have written the plays. Such snobbery and elitism is endemic to the anti-Stratfordian argument.

Holger Syme has replied to Cutler in the pages of the same paper and effectively demolishes the anti-Stratfordian arguments, showing that their scholarship is only a thin veneer that is easily smashed by only the slightest bit of rigorous research and analysis. I wrote a few days ago about the myth of Shakespeare’s coining new words. And for even more, go to Syme’s blog, where he has written extensively. See the entries herehere, and here. (Disclosure: Syme is a professor here at the University of Toronto, but he is not one of my teachers, and the extent of my relationship with him is once chatting briefly at a faculty-grad student softball game.)

I will make one further comment on one aspect of Cutler’s piece, however, because Syme does not mention the topic and it is an area of Shakespeare scholarship where I have more than a passing knowledge. Cutler writes of Shakespeare’s “mastering of at least five languages other than English.” This is utter hogwash; there is no evidence that Shakespeare was master of any language other than English. Ben Jonson famously wrote of Shakespeare that he had “little Latin and less Greek.” Of course, the anti-Stratfordians will claim that Jonson is writing about the Stratford man and not the author of the plays, but when one examines the Latin that appears in Shakespeare’s corpus it is apparent that it has been culled from distant memories of schoolboy Latin. The most extensive use of that language by Shakespeare is the Latin lesson in The Merry Wives of Windsor 4.1, which is taken almost word for word from the opening pages of Lyly’s A Shorte Introduction of Grammar, a text that every first-year school boy in Elizabethan England would have learned by heart. Latin elsewhere in the plays consists of little more than individual words and phrases. (Strangely, Shakespeare’s Roman plays have almost no Latin in them, “et tu Brute” being the famed exception, but I digress.) Similarly, the only other extensive use of a language other than English in Shakespeare’s corpus is in Henry V 3.4, in which Princess Katherine commands her maid to teach her English. And we get phrase-book French here, a simple lesson on naming parts of the body, with lots of sexual punning thrown in. One doesn’t need to know French at all to understand exactly what is happening on stage, and it wouldn’t have taken “mastery” of French to write the scene. As for other languages, there are a couple phrases and a half dozen words from Italian and three brief snippets of Spanish from the plays. That’s it. My point: Shakespeare was a master of dramatic art, but his work doesn’t display anything other than ordinary command of foreign languages. He is not exceptional in this regard, and in fact is probably somewhat sub-par when compared to his contemporaries, like the university-educated Marlowe.

Shakespearean Mythbusting: Vocab

24 October 2011

Holger Syme has a nice piece on Shakespeare’s vocabulary and why his supposed inventiveness with the English language is not exceptional.

Also, the list of other Elizabethan playwrights with their education (or lack thereof) and humble family backgrounds pretty much puts paid to the myth that Oxford wrote Shakespeare’s plays.

I would add two things to Syme’s article. The first is that the OED is used as a source for many such word studies, but the OED is heavily biased in favor of Shakespeare. His works were carefully picked apart for the first edition of the dictionary, with a care that no other writer got. The editors give precedence to Shakespeare citations over those of others. If they have two quotations and only room for one, the Shakespeare goes in the dictionary. (This is a sound editorial policy. After all, Shakespeare is much more likely to be read than other works and the need is greater, but it can skew the results when using the OED as a corpus.)

The second is that Shakespeare does not, as many claim, have the credit for the greatest number of first citations of words in the OED. That honor goes to Chaucer. As of today, the OED has 1,726 words with first citations from Shakespeare, but 2,220 by Chaucer, some 28% more. And Chaucer’s surviving corpus is only about half as big as Shakespeare’s, clocking in at about 385,000 words. This doesn’t mean that Chaucer was of singular talent either. The reason he gets so many first citations is chronology; he is the first major poet writing after the massive influx of Norman words into the language. (And there is a similar bias among OED editors in favor of Chaucer over his contemporaries.)

Word Clouds: The Mullets of the Internet

14 October 2011

Jacob Harris has a piece on the non-utility of word clouds over at the Nieman Journalism Lab.

Word clouds are basically a lazy way to inject a graphic and superficial analysis into a story. There are times when they can be useful, but as Harris points out, there is almost always a better way to visualize textual data.

Be sure to click on the links in Harris’s story for the examples of good and bad data visualization.